First, no, you would have to establish that there is in fact some non trivial relationship to price, as a direct result of political spending, in order for you to establish what you were trying to lay out. Otherwise, one person’s spending does not in fact limit another’s. The mere existence of market forces does not support the notion of market manipulation, which is what you are suggesting. Your argument is akin to saying that if I buy food, I am forcing you to starve, because my purchase causes some trivial increase in demand which impacts pricing.
Second, your statement here that if I choose to express myself, and you do not, then somehow that constitutes an infringement on your speech, is nonsensical on its face. Expression is a choice to convert one’s resources into a manifested form. You could go out and spend all your time calling up people, going on get out the vote efforts, etc. Or you could choose not to. But your choice is not contingent upon mine. If I choose to do more or less, that’s my choice to make. You are essentially suggesting that no one should be allowed to expend more resources than that which the least willing or capable member of society is willing to expend.
That really isn’t how a free society works. You are kind of drifting into totalitarianism, under the common and yet misguided belief that totalitarianism is fine as long as it’s benevolent. Because it never stays benevolent.
There is no way you could create or enforce such a standard. Even ignoring the obvious reality that, whether you may not want to admit it, one side is not simply “true” while the other is “false”, bias can exist in an infinite set of less obvious forms. Simple omission can alter a narrative without actually being “false”.
As soon as you find out what that mythical mechanism is, let us know.
Again, you are leaning on a notion which I do not believe you have supported. You are suggesting that somehow, one person’s exercise of their speech rights is inherently infringing upon yours. You will need to go to greater lengths to actually establish this is true, because it is not something which is as obviously true as you are suggesting.
No, the limitations on speech are EXTREMELY narrow and well defined. Your assertion that the government already does this in some kind of widespread manner, is false.
The chief factor which allows for government limitation on speech, is whether the speech contains an expression of an idea.
This is why you can’t yell fire in a movie theater… because such a statement is not an expression of your political views or ideas. Speaking itself, is not in fact a protected right. What’s protected is the expression of ideas. And your suggestion that the government should regulate how those ideas are expressed, is antithetical to the purpose of the 1st amendment. This is pretty well established in constitutional law at this point. It is not likely to change, nor should it.